EmT7. Is jazz essentially a non-western music?
David Baker claims in his book, Jazz Pedagogy (1979), in Chapter 1 on the myths of jazz that:
"The main fallacy inherent in all of these statements [concerning the myths of jazz Baker considers] lies with trying to impose European norms, standards, values, and criteria on an essentially non-western art form. Most of the writing about jazz has been from the perspective of what is valid within the parameters of Western aesthetics and traditions." (p. 7, emphasis in red not Baker's)
- Is this true?